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And that naïve artist somehow managed to create a work that follows Zipf's law, 4 centuries before it was discovered?


Random Texts Exhibit Zipf’s-Law-Like Word Frequency Distribution: https://www.nslij-genetics.org/wp-content/uploads/2022/12/ie...

It also applies to a range of natural phenomena, e.g. lunar craters and earthquakes: https://www.cs.cornell.edu/courses/cs6241/2019sp/readings/Ne...

So the fact that word frequencies in the Voynich Manuscript follow Zipf's law doesn't prove it's written in a natural language.


Why would it not ?


It wasn't the volume, but the azimuth.


The azimuth adjustment screw :(


Can you recommend any good book/resource to pick up PostgreSQL?

I'm familiar with MySQL/MariaDB, but have no experience with Postgres.


The best I've seen is The Art of PostgreSQL: https://theartofpostgresql.com/


Thank you, sir!


I always google what I need. I admit I haven’t gone deep into it. Just the basics for side projects.


If I understand it correctly, that's what [django-seal](https://github.com/charettes/django-seal) does.


definitely seems like a good candidate.


I wholeheartedly agree with you!

Unfortunately, most don't see it that way. All those partisan attitudes make me sad.


Because there are several other languages (Galician, Aragonese, Asturianu, Estremeñu, etc) that are just as Spanish as Castilian is.

Did you notice that English is called English (from England) and not British? Quite logical IMHO, as in the UK several other languages are spoken (Welsh, Irish, Cornish, etc)


That’s nonsense in Italy and Germany there are other languages/dialects too and nobody changes the name to the main common language.

The case of English is different as the language was mainly used una part of the country, while Spanish rapidly extended to all regions.


Italy and Germany were both unified much more recently than Spain, and by popular nationalist movements. The selection of their national dialects was basically artificial, since Tuscan Italian and Hochdeutsch were not widely spoken in either country.

The status of languages like Castillan is much more controversial, because they are only the national dialect by conquest. (French is in a similar position, though it cleverly shares the name with the country it is the national language of.) It doesn't help that the French and Spanish governments have historically suppressed "dialects" in favour of the national language in an immoral and shameful way.

>The case of English is different as the language was mainly used una part of the country

English is the most used language throughout the UK. There are almost no non-English-speaking communities left in Wales or Scotland, and language (much like everything else to do with the English) is a contentious political issue in Northern Ireland.

However, it would be grossly inappropriate to start calling this language "British", even when just referring to how it is spoken in the UK - because of many of the same historical features as Castillan and French.


> That’s nonsense in Italy and Germany there are other languages/dialects too and nobody changes the name to the main common language.

Because Italy is still in its nationalist infancy, being united as big, single, 19th century cool nation for a little more than 150 years. But many of the "dialects" spoken in Italy are actually different languages with different vocabulary, grammar rules etc.


So, according to you, the Spanish constitution is nonsense:

Article 3

1. Castilian is the official Spanish language of the State. All Spaniards have the duty to know it and the right to use it.

2. The other Spanish languages shall also be official in the respective Autonomous Communities in accordance with their Statutes.

3. The wealth of the different linguistic modalities of Spain is a cultural heritage that shall be the object of special respect and protection.


No, officially in Spain the language is Castilian. However, according to the RAE, it’s also called Spanish. Indeed the RAE recommends the use of “español” (Spanish) [1].

[1] https://www.rae.es/dpd/espa%C3%B1ol


Are you lying on purpose? Or just ill-informed?

In the last election, the parties with the most votes were PSC (23,04%), ERC(21,3%) and JxCat (20,04%). PSC is unionist, where ERC and JxCat are separatist. Ciutadans (radically unionist) merely got 5,57% of the votes.

You can check the results at https://www.lavanguardia.com/elecciones/autonomicas-cataluna... or https://resultados.elpais.com/elecciones/2021/autonomicas/09...


That's simply not true: Spanish Constitution do allow autonomous communities to organize referenda.

As a matter of fact, quite a few have been held:

* Basque Country, 1979-10-25: Referéndum sobre el proyecto de Estatuto de Autonomía para el País Vasco * Catalonia, 1979-10-25: Referéndum sobre el Estatuto de Autonomía de Cataluña * Andalusia, 1980-02-28: Referéndum sobre la iniciativa del proceso autonómico de Andalucía * Galicia, 1980-12-21: Referendum sobre el Estatuto de Autonomía de Galicia * Andalusia, 1981-10-20: Referéndum sobre el Estatuto de Autonomía de Andalucía * Catalonia, 2006-06-18: Referéndum sobre la reforma del Estatuto de Autonomía de Cataluña * Andalusia, 2007-02-18: Referéndum sobre la reforma del Estatuto de Autonomía de Andalucía


Those referendums were about constituting the regions as Autonomous Communities (what in USA is an “state”), or about updating their “estatuto de autonomía” (declaration of state). They were not about independence from Spain.

Actually, Spain forbids independence clearly in its Constitution, as it is illegal in many other countries, like the USA for example.


> Those referendums were about constituting the regions as Autonomous Communities (what in USA is an “state”), or about updating their “estatuto de autonomía” (declaration of state)

First, comparing the autonomous communities to states is ludicrous. The legal standing is very different.

> updating their “estatuto de autonomía”

This is technically part of the Spanish constitution, not that it matters because they're never uphold.


It also states that every spaniard has the right to a proper house, and yet here we are...


Doesn't seem to be related to the discussion, does it?


How is that related to the discussion? Are we going to “cancel” the Constitution?


Yes, you do. It is called Bahya Kumbhaka.


It does not play any significant role. That you can hold breath after exhaling is obvious and yogis probably talked about it. Doesn't change the fact though that Pranayama is all about holding breath after inhaling. That is basically the core goal.


No, that is not the only core goal. Pranayama has many breathing exercises with many different goals.

And cronopios is right:

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kumbhaka


Different pranayamas have different goals. Check out Bhastrika pranayama for instance.


okay, I'll have another look at it. anyway - my intention was not to disregard breathing techniques where breath holding after exhalation plays a role. I do a few of them on a regular basis. I just don't like the Navy Seals practice Pranayama sentiment. can't even say why exactly.


> I just don't like the Navy Seals practice Pranayama sentiment.

Me either, its like two annoying memes are trying to breed a memeplex together.


ola k ase?

But that was because of the hard character limit in SMS messages, and that they used to cost money.


It was also very common to write long messages in "translit" (substituting Latin letters for equivalent Cyrillic ones, e.g. ф -> f) back then here in Russia since you could fit in 160 characters using GSM 03.38 (7-bit encoding) instead of 70 characters with UCS-2 (UTF-16 encoded) and SMS messages were quite expensive.


Transliterated messages are still quite popular in Georgia (გამარჯობა, როგორ ხარ? > gamarjoba, rogor xar?), even in places where character limits don't apply. Which makes it practically impossible to use any translation services, as there are many ways to substitute a single letter or a sound, making reversing extremely hard. And if you add to the mix the poor quality of those translation services for Georgian language in general, you get texts that mostly make sense to just native speakers.


My younger Mexican in-laws who still occasionally use text-ese would say "q" instead of "k" (the latter normally being pronounced ka, while q is pronounced que).


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