Just to make sure we are on the same page: You don't think that increased levels of melanin means that an individual is more likely to be a criminal?

With that out of the way. The conversation went like this:

dsuth: "I thought that [the link between skin colour and crime in the US] was a fairly massive social issue over there, well-deserving of a wikipedia page."

me: "If there was a connection between skin color and crime in the US why would this genetic predisposition stop at the border?"

you: "Does it? http://news.nationalpost.com/2012/02/01/police-routinely-sup... "

I am not sure where we got our signals crossed.

* What were you questioning when you asked "does it?"

* What did you expect I was going to get out of the article you linked to?

* You do not think that a person's race is a matter of genetics?

Didn't you mean to imply that blacks in countries bordering the US had substantially lower crime rates than blacks in the US? If you didn't, then I have no idea what you were getting at.