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> However, in this article, I show that female-mediated sperm selection can also facilitate assortative fusion between genetically compatible gametes. Based on this evidence, I argue that reproductive failure does not necessarily exclusively represent a pathological condition, but can also result from sexual selection (‘mate choice’) at the level of the gametes.

I'm haphazardly suggesting that the above is the same as:

> "There are some (small) genetic populations whose genetics diverged so much, from geographic separation, that they have fertility problems [1].

We have genetic populations that are the result of geographic separation, and we even have genetic divergence that makes reproduction difficult/impossible.

Again, what's left? Why can't we categorize human genetic populations to the same level? Please be specific in what's missing?

> It says nothing about species or subspecies

Why would it? If the categorization of humans included subspecies, I couldn't have responded.



Those two things really aren't the same at all, so I don't see where you're going with this.

If it's an established biological fact that there are different subspecies of humans, then it should be possible to find a reference for that.


> Those two things really aren't the same at all

Precise equality isn't required for a conceptual discussion, especially one that's so ill defined/subjective as the concept of subspecies [1].

It's an established political fact that classifying humans, at any level, could never be presented. That's not a bad thing, but it's also a mostly arbitrary thing.

[1] https://bioone.org/journals/the-auk/volume-132/issue-2/AUK-1...




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