“Whether the assembly of the bones occurred in the late Neolithic or in the Roman period, the presence of the ‘individual’ was clearly intentional,” write the researchers.”
I would like the researchers to explain to me what hypotheses they consider to suggest that in the Neolithic they had bones from the Roman period.
From the abstract: "The burial is explained as a composite Neolithic burial that was reworked 2500 years later with the addition of a new cranium and grave goods."
The hypothesis here would be that the assembly was originally created in the Neolithic period, but that it was later modified with new bones in the Roman period.
I would like the researchers to explain to me what hypotheses they consider to suggest that in the Neolithic they had bones from the Roman period.