j-maffe, it looks to me like you are being disingenuous, because in reply to your earlier comment above, I had quoted the Wikipedia definition of monopoly. my entire subsequent argument was based on that, as you well know. if you want to try to redefine terms, or move goalposts, feel free to do so, but I will not participate in an argument based on such behaviour.
to repeat, quoting from the Wikipedia definition of monopoly:
>A monopoly (from Greek μόνος, mónos, 'single, alone' and πωλεῖν, pōleîn, 'to sell'), as described by Irving Fisher, is a market with the "absence of competition", creating a situation where a specific person or enterprise is the only supplier of a particular thing.
(italics mine)
can you really not see the difference between 90% search share held by Google, which means 10% share held by others, vs. absence of competition? it is blindingly obvious.
I am leaving this thread. I don't argue with people who either don't get it, or seem to be operating under false pretences.
Just to be clear, you're saying that the judge [1], the Justice Department [2], and journalists[3] are all wrong?
If you want to be pedantic about it, they have what is called an effective monopoly[4].
I am making a rare exception to my statement about not engaging with you further (because of the crap that you wrote earlier), because of the other crap that you wrote above (only in order to point that crap out to other readers):
half the links (i.e. 1 and 2) you quoted above don't work for me. paywalls or signup required? clever you, eh? not!
and link 4 is too long and verbose. I searched for the word effective, but did not find it in the initial part on the screen.
aaannnddd ... you are quoting journalists (!) as though they are automatically competent authorities? and even judges' decisions sometimes get reversed by higher courts. so effectively you have no point. hee ... hee ... hee ...
looks like, in your arguments, you thrive on appeals to faux authority, and nothing else, particularly not on reasoning.
your ignoring that, or not understanding that, is like a person saying that 10% is equal to 0%. I cannot argue with such people. it's a dead end, and a waste of my time.
to repeat, quoting from the Wikipedia definition of monopoly:
>A monopoly (from Greek μόνος, mónos, 'single, alone' and πωλεῖν, pōleîn, 'to sell'), as described by Irving Fisher, is a market with the "absence of competition", creating a situation where a specific person or enterprise is the only supplier of a particular thing.
(italics mine)
can you really not see the difference between 90% search share held by Google, which means 10% share held by others, vs. absence of competition? it is blindingly obvious.
I am leaving this thread. I don't argue with people who either don't get it, or seem to be operating under false pretences.