It is there. But it's just a detail many will breeze over and then their intuition fails them.
The way you can know this is: ask people the same question with "binomial" instead of "uniform" and see if you get a different answer. My guess is people will say the same regardless.
I think the thing that clarifies it for me is that if the balls are chosen in such a way that they have a binomial distribution, then, intuitively, the question would be implying retrocausality by saying that N was also "chosen":
> n is chosen uniformly at random
If the balls follow a binomial distribution, then your intuition would say that N wasn't the thing that was chosen; the balls were chosen, and then N was determined afterwards by counting the balls that you picked. This is because you cannot choose N and then draw balls binomially and get that many green or red balls. You'd have to choose 100 balls, see whether the number of Red matches your chosen N, and if it didn't, draw again, which is a tortuous interpretation given the phrasing, as I said above.
By saying that N was "chosen", it implies to me that N comes first, and the choice of balls comes after that, i.e. the balls are not binomially distributed.
Sure, I guess I'm just arguing that even if you overlook that detail, then your intuition should tell you that the balls having a binomial distribution is suspect, i.e. you have to overlook a small thing and a big thing to misunderstand, and given that, I don't think the question is ambiguous. All good though.
I don't think that's right though, I don't think "chosen" implies what you are saying. An existing binomial distribution could exist and you just choose n from it. You wouldn't have to "generate" the distribution. To me "chosen" and "sampled" would mean the same, and it wouldn't be weird to say "n was sampled from a binomial distribution"
I think I see what you mean now, and I understand that that would be possible.
Wouldn't you need some extra parameters if it were a binomial distribution though? For a uniform distribution every item is equiprobable (i.e. there's only one uniform distribution for a given N) but there are many binomial distributions possible for a given N. (Disclaimer, I know very little about statistics.) So the fact that you aren't given those parameters in the question means you can't make much of a prediction if it were binomial.
Edit: I read that binomial distributions are parameterized on both the number of trials and the probability of the two outcomes, so that kind of demonstrates my point doesn't it? You're not given the probability of Red and Green for the binomial distribution, so you can't really answer the question that way. You could assume it's 50/50, but that's an assumption that isn't justified by the question.
The way you can know this is: ask people the same question with "binomial" instead of "uniform" and see if you get a different answer. My guess is people will say the same regardless.