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Apple's justification seems counterintuitive, given that the commission only applies to app sales or in-app purchases. Since free apps don't pay anything, what is the commission for if not for "services as a payment provider"?


It's very normal for companies to charge some customers more than others based on their ability and/or willingness to pay. See: student, senior, and military discounts, SaaS with organization pricing vs individual pricing, etc.


I don't know for the US but in many countries that's just illegal if you have a monopoly.


The judge in this ruling found that Apple does not have a monopoly, so it wouldn't matter either way.




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