I agree that it is subject to moral judgements but that doesn’t make two distinct events explicitly coupled. You’re even conceding the point by needing to describe the two events with different terms.
I am being pedantic here but you are factually incorrect in saying that consenting to one is consenting to the other as a factual statement when the two events can be separated.
If you go to the restaurant, and you order a meal, and the waiter brings you your meal—then implicitly, you have consented to paying for your order. The events "you order food", "waiter brings food", and "you pay for food" are physically separate, but in terms of consent they are not separate.
I am being pedantic here but you are factually incorrect in saying that consenting to one is consenting to the other as a factual statement when the two events can be separated.