No. Quecha is spoken in Peru and Ecuador, in South America. Sami is spoken in northern Scandinavia. Tamil is spoken in Southern India. Japanese is spoken in Japan. They would have had to have spread so far in the past that any systematic relationship becomes opaque to us, linguistically. A valid and compelling demonstration of their relationship would be mind-blowing. It would link the indigenous cultures and peoples of southern Asia, northern Europe and South America culturally, with common origin likely within the last ~10,000 years (about the event horizon of the reconstructive method). I've never heard of that claim made seriously, have you? The only language family known to exist in both Asia and America is the Yeneisian-Dene family [1], the existence of which is still a bit controversial, and which is spoken in northern Siberia and North America (which is more like what you'd expect -- though notably, Navajo is in Arizona).
If we're just going to assume on very loose basis from typological comparison, we might as well assume proto-World, because that's what the sum evidence suggests. But that guess (an idea I do take seriously) is very different from demonstrating their relationship through solid comparative and historical linguistics.
> I've never heard of that claim made seriously, have you? The only language family known to exist in both Asia and America is the Yeneisian-Dene family
I assume, then, that you've never heard of the Borean languages [0]. Which link the people of southern Asia, northern Europe and South America, culturally, with a common origin around 40-45,000 years ago. The Borean hypothesis is a claim that is made quite seriously, but does not presuppose a universal origin. It is wide reaching, but there are people groups outside of it.
Yes, I have heard of it. Borean effectively is a superset of Altaic or the even more controversial Nostratic. The languages of Iberia 3000 years ago, Ancient Egyptian, classical Mayan, Chinese -- all probably related? This is not generally accepted.
It's an interesting idea, I cannot disprove it. But I don't think it has been proven, either. Even the possible relationship between Uralic, Afroasiatic and Indo-European is not widely accepted yet. Those language families are extensively documented and we can reconstruct their proto-languages convincingly back to somewhat around 10,000 years ago. They look kind of similar in some ways, maybe areal effects? I think to hope for another 10,000 years further back is too much. Borean is a claim about probably further back than even that. The Nostratic and Altaic subsets of the Borean hypothesis, presumably with its proto-language somewhere in Asia around 10,000 years ago, alone is controversial and is not generally accepted.
If we're just going to assume on very loose basis from typological comparison, we might as well assume proto-World, because that's what the sum evidence suggests. But that guess (an idea I do take seriously) is very different from demonstrating their relationship through solid comparative and historical linguistics.
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Den%C3%A9%E2%80%93Yeniseian_la...