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Aren't all agreements enforced via coercion? either via the law/government or personally (which can be much worse)


No, not all. Or at least, no, I don't see it that way. But this is getting deep into the weeds of semantics. The key is that coercion is typically defined to mean the initiation of some kind of physical aggression (or threat of it). I'd recommend Stephan Kinsella's "Against Intellectual Property" if you want a more philosophical take on it. But beware, he is a student of an unorthodox branch of economics, so depending on your flexibility, you may or may not dismiss it immediately as nutty mumbo jumbo.

I think the important bit here is that my outlook does not require such an obvious inconsistency.




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