When I read things like this, I start to wonder: when wealth inequality is discussed, how is it measured? I recall hearing that Jeff Bezos regularly loses billions due to fluctuations in Amazon stock. How much of the "wealth" in wealth inequality is actually based on paper gains? In other words, it seems that the richer you are, the more exposure you might have to the vagaries of the market. Maybe you are rich enough that you can afford to take that hit, but you will also likely lose more in dollars, I would assume.
one commonly used measure of inequality is the Gini coefficient, which isn't perfect but is great for getting a "big picture" view of things. The increased exposure of the rich to the vicissitudes of valuations doesn't really get accounted for, even in more detailed analyses. I'm guess that's because it would be horribly impractical to measure; you'd have to take a detailed look at the finances of almost everybody.
