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> The English text is used as the reference by the various countries that have now implemented it,

Is it? All EU laws are published in the official languages of all members. Legally, there are no translations but 22 texts that have equal status and the same meaning.

Don't ask me what happens if the meanings turn out not to match exactly in a relevant way.



Has there been a case before the EU high court yet where there was a meaningful discrepancy between a local version and another that was deemed to be leading?


I've found an interesting text by the legal service of the European Commission that answers that question.

TLDR: That's why the EUCJ primarily relies on the intent of a law.

http://ec.europa.eu/dgs/legal_service/seminars/agjacobs_summ... ("How to interpret legislation which is equally authentic in twenty languages")


Thank you for digging that up! This also explains a couple of other things that I was wondering about.




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