I'm not at all qualified to read this sort of decision, but, it seems to me like if you're clearly an employee of company 2, then you're definitely neither an employee nor an independent contractor of company 1 and this test doesn't even apply.
(I'm not sure if/how this breaks down if company 2 exists solely to provide people to work for company 1 and has no meaningful independent existence, which ... is probably the case for many Uber drivers now, so that's a relevant question.)
I was thinking from the perspective of Uber for Plumbers or Pluber (TM), where there would be a dispute over whether the plumber was an employee of Pluber or not.
(I'm not sure if/how this breaks down if company 2 exists solely to provide people to work for company 1 and has no meaningful independent existence, which ... is probably the case for many Uber drivers now, so that's a relevant question.)