Not in itself. Even the various Communist revolutions cited in other comments don't correlate well with inequality: Tsarist Russia in 1905 and 1917 had lower levels of inequality than Victorian England.

Look for collapse due to power concentration, not wealth.

You will find plenty of examples, but we usually call them "revolution", not "collapse".

Great Depression and various Communist Revolutions might fit your bill.

The French Revolution?

The Russian empire?