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I was simply relating to the severity of mislabeling. The last comment I made about the price was merely to support the need for greater punishment of mislabeling (added cost is a side effect of mislabeling). Not to draw comparison to my added expenditure and EpiPen over-pricing.

I wasn't over-charged for drugs, I was over-prescribed by the doctor - and this shows the danger of being given drugs you're not supposed to have (both wasted money and loss of treatment time). Which was the point of the last two paragraphs in support of my claim that mislabeling is worse than pharma companies over-charging insurance companies (I believe non-insurance holders were offered lower prices by Mylan?). But I could see how my choice of phrasing might have been misinterpreted.




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